1.Who among the following is not susceptible to infection? A) Student B) Extremes of age C) Inadequate nutritional status D) Diabetes mellitus patient ANSWER: A 2.student is feeling feverish with slight body malaise. Based on your knowledge of the stages of disease, which of the following is she in now? A) Incubation period B) Prodromal period C) Acute phase D) Remission. ANSWER: B 3.A client who developed vesicular lesions all over her body accompanied by high grade fever and body malaise was diagnosed as having varicella/chicken pox.In the dtaged of disease, which of the following stage is she in now? A) Incubation period B) Prodromal priod C) Acute phase D) Remission ANSWER: C 3. In fertilization, the ovum and the spermatozoa must each have haploid chromosomes.This is the outcome of the cell division called meiosis, which will result in how many chromosomes for each daughter cell? A) 46 pairs B) 23 pairs C) 46 D) 23 ANSWER: D 4.In DNA, bases that can link with each other are called complimentary . Which of the following are complimentary bases? A) Adenine and Guanine B) Cytosine and Guanine C) Thymine and Cytosine D) Cytosine and Uracil ANSWER: B 5. A pregnant mother who is obsessed with a movie star's looks would not give birth to a child who looks like the movie star, because it is she and her husband who will transmit the genetic information to their child. These genetic information are found in what structural part of their DNA? A) The phosphoric acid B) The 5carbon sugar C) The nitrogenous bases D) The hydrogen bonds ANSWER: C 6. Meiosis differs from mitosis in which of the following ways? A) meiosis produces haploid cells; mitosis, diploid cells B) meiotic daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cell C) crossing over occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis D) all of the above ANSWER: D 7. When does crossing over occur? A) Prophase I B) Prophase II C) Metaphase I D) Anaphase II ANSWER: A 8. All of a woman's primary oocytes are produced A) between the ages of 16 and 24 years B) within a year after she reaches puberty C) before she is born D) none of the above ANSWER: C 9. In each meiotic division of oogenesis, one of the daughter cells receives most of the cytoplasm while the other forms a A) pronucleus B) polar body C) primary oocyte D) secondary oocyte ANSWER: B 10. Unlike oogonia, ____________ always divide first by mitosis before undergoing meiosis A) spermatogonia B) primary spermatocytes C) secondary spermatocytes D) spermatids ANSWER: A 11. The fusion of two haploid sex cells to produce a diploid zygote is A) capacitation B) fertilization C) development D) differentiation ANSWER: B 12. All major organ systems appear in the early form of a distinctly humanlike body during the A) pre-embryonic period B) second trimester C) embryonic period D) fetal period ANSWER: C 14.The male and female processes of meiosis are equal A) True B) False; for males it results in four spermatids and females result in two ovumwith two polar bodies C) False; for males it results in four spermatids and females results in one ovum with three polar bodies D) False, for males and females it results in four [spermatids/ovum] but three of the ovum eventually dissolve as polar bodies E) False, for males it results in one spermatid with three polar bodies and females result in two ovum with two polar bodies ANSWER: C 15.A baby boy was born with a blood type O. The mother has blood type B. Based on your knowledge of genetics, it would be impossible for the baby to have a father who has which blood type? A) Type A B) Type B C) Type AB D) Type O ANSWER: A 16. Down syndrome is the most common chromosomal disorder. It is caused by a meiotic nondisjunction of the chromosome 21.How many chromosomes does the child with a Down syndrome have? A) 23 pairs B) 23 C) 46 pairs D) 47 ANSWER: D 17. In Klinefelter's syndrome, the child carries an XXY chromosomes caused by nondisjunction during the meiotic division of one of the parents. In this disorder, one of the parents carry a haploid chromosome while the other parent carries what chromosomal number of its gametes? A) Haploid B) Diploid C) Aneuploid D) Heteroploid ANSWER: B 18. Cri-du-chat syndrome is associated with A) a missing chromosome number 5 B) an additional chromosome number 5 C) a deletion of the long arm of chromosome number 5 D) a deletion of the short arm of chromosome number 5 ANSWER: D 20. An individual with two normal sets of autosomes and a single X chromosome has A) Down syndrome B) Patau syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) Klinefelter syndrome ANSWER:C 21.How many chromosomes does a person with Edward syndrome have? A) 45 B) 46 C) 47 D) 48 ANSWER: C 22.All of the following aneuploids result from female nondisjunction except A) Klinefelter syndrome B) triplo X C) Turner syndrome D) Jacobs syndrome ANSWER: C 23.The syndrome in which individual somatic cells contains 3 sex chromosomes XXX is called A) Down syndrome B) Super female C) Turner syndrome D) Phenylketonuria 24.A 25 year old man sustained a fracture of his leg 6 months ago. The leg had been encased in a cast, which has just been removed. The patient is amazed at the degree to which the muscles in his leg have shrunked.Which of the following outcomes would be the result of the above adaptation? A) It is reversible B) It is irreversible C) It will only cause minimum deformity to the extremity D) Plastic surgery can remedy the problem ANSWER: A 25. When the cell is injured , what would be the first sign? A) A biochemical reaction B) An area of hyperplasia C) A chromatid D) Dysplasia ANSWER: A 26.Cell injury can occur through many mechanisms. Which of the following does not cause cell injury? A) Free radical formation B) Hypoxia C) Disruption of intracellular calcium homeostasis D) Increase in ATP production ANSWER: D 27.Aging causes cell degeneration, a type of nonlethal cell damage. This is not caused by which of the following? A) Cellular swelling B) Fatty infiltrates C) Atrophy D) Influx of potassium into the cell ANSWER: D 28. Which of the following is an extrinsic factor that can cause cell aging and death? A) Down syndrome B) Sickle cell anemia C) Ultraviolet radiation D) Diabetes Millitus ANSWER: C 29.A 65 year old male diabetic complained of chest pains of more than 1 hour prior to consultation. Laboratory results showed increased in enzyme levels associated with cell injury and death of heart muscle cells.Among the following processes, which one causes cellular injury and death? A) Atrophy B) Metaplasia C) Hypertrophy D) Infarction ANSWER: D 30.What are the two patterns of reversible cell injury visible under the light microscope? A) Membrane blebbing, and swelling and disruption of lysosomes B) Cellular swelling and fatty change C) Swelling and disruption of lysosomes and fatty change D) Pyknosis and membrane blebbing ANSWER: B 31.Reversible cell injury is characterized by all of the following morphological changes except? A) Membrane blebbing B) Swelling and disruption of lysosomes C) Detachment of ribosomes from the endoplastic reticulum D) Generalized swelling of cell and its organelles ANSWER: B 32.In which morphologic pattern of necrosis are cells completely digested and transformed into a liquid viscous mass? Necrosis in the central nervous system is almost always of this type A) Coagulative Necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis C) Gangrenous Necrosis D) Caseous Necrosis E) Fat Necrosis ANSWER: B 33.Hyperplasia is primarily operative in which of the following growth alterations? A) Appearance of affected kidney in renovascular hypertension B) Thickned bladder wall in a pt with urethral obstruction C) Barrett's esophagus in a pt with gastroesophageal reflux D) Enlarged left atrium in a pt with severe mitral stenosis E) Galactorrhea in a woman with a prolactinoma ANSWER: C 34.Which of the following disorders is an example of Coagulation necrosis? A) Lobar pneumonia in an alcoholic B) Hepatic abscess in a pt with amebiasis C) Pseudomembranous colitis in a pt on ampicillin D) Diminished brain mass in a pt with Alzheimer's disease E) Embolus to the superior mesenteric artery leading to bowel infarction ANSWER: B 35.Which of the following disorders is an example of metaplasia? A) Increased Goblet cells in mainstem bronchus of a smoker B) squamous epithelium in the mainstem bronchus of a smoker C) Proliferative endometrial glands in a woman on unopossed estrogen D) Hyperkeratosis of the skin in a pt with Psoriasis E) Multinucleated giant cells in a granuloma ANSWER: A 36.A type of nonlethal cell damage; A) Necrosis B) Apoptosis C) Degeneration D) Malignancy ANSWER: C 37.The following toxic injuries may be caused by endogenous sources except A) Genetically determined metabolic errors B) Gross malformations C) Hypersensitivity reactions D) Carbon monoxide ANSWER: D 38.Causes of thermal injury include all of the following except; A) Radiation therapy B) X-rays C) Ischemia D) Ultraviolet rays ANSWER: C 39.The following causes cellular degeneration except; A) Cellular swelling B) Fatty infiltrates C) Atrophy D) Mutation ANSWER: D 40.The following is not an intrinsic factor in aging A) Congenital B) Neoplastic C) Nutritional D) Viruses ANSWER: A 41.The following is true of degeneration: A) 3he changes are found in the cytoplasm B) The changes are found in the nucleus C) The changes are found in the DNA D) The changes are found in the RNA ANSWER: A 42.Cell injury can occur through many mechanisms. Which of the following does not cause cell injury? A) Free radical formation B) Hypoxia C) Disruption of intracellular calcium homeostasis D) Increase in ATP production ANSWER: D 43.Which of the following is NOT characteristic of reversible cell injury? A) Reduced oxidative phosphorylation B) ATP depletion C) Cellular shrinking D) Changes in ion concentrations E) Water influx ANSWER: E 44.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of irreversible cell injury? A) Necrosis, which is always pathologic or apoptosis B) Intracellular accumulations [e.g. lipids] or calcification C) Structural changes [e.g. mitochondrial densities D) Profound disturbances in membrane function E) Adaptable mitochondrial dysfunction ANSWER: E 45.Reversible cell injury is characterised by the following morphological changes except? A) Membrane blebbing B) Swelling and disruption of lysosomes C) Detachment of ribosomes from the endoplasmic reticulum D) Geeneralized swelling of cell and its organelles ANSWER: B 46.Which of the following describes hypertrophy? A) Increase in the number of cells [mitosis] in an organ or tissue B) Decrease in the number of cells [mitosis] in an organ or tissue C) Increase in individual cell size in an organ or tissue D) Decrease in individual cell size in an organ or tissue E) Reversible change in which one adult cell is replaced by another adult cell type ANSWER: C 47.If a patient had hyperplasia of the endometrium,which of the following is the most likely? A) Increased risk of miscarriage B) Decreased risk of miscarriage C) Increased risk of endometrial cancer D) Decreased risk of endometrial cancer E) Increased risk of neurologic disease ANSWER: C 48.Infection from which of the following is associated with hyperplasia? A) Papillomavirus B) Enterobacteria C) Staphylococci D) Streptococci E) Hookworms ANSWER: A 49.A young man experiences multiple blunt trauma to the legs and laceration of the right femoral artery. He loses a lot of blood during the time it akes to get to the emergency department.On admission , the hematocrit is 10%. Which of the following tissues is most likely to withstand damage from this event? A) Hippocampus B) Myocardium C) Skeletal muscle D) Small intestinal epithelium ANSWER: C 51.Increase in cytosolic Ca2+ can damage mitochondria A) True B) False ANSWER: A 52.What are the two patterns of reversible cell injury visible under light microscope? A) Membrane blebbing and swelling and disruption of lysosome B) Cellular swelling and fatty change C) Swelling and disruption of lysosome D) Pyknosis and membrane blebbing ANSWER: B 53.A mature age student exercises little and eats mainly pizza and several serves of French fries A) Fat embolism B) Fatty degeneration of myocardium C) Hyperplasia of adipocytes D) Hypertrophy of adipocytes E) Metaplasia of muscle cells to adipocytes ANSWER: D 54.Internucleosomal DNA cleavage is a specific for apoptosis A) True B) False ANSWER: B 55.What is karyorrhexis? A) Nuclear condensation B) Nuclear fragmentation ANSWER: B 56.What is pyknosis? A) Nuclear condensation B) Nuclear fragmentation C) Nuclear dissolution ANSWER: A 57.What is karyolysis? A) Nuclear Condensation B) Nuclear Fragmentation C) Nuclear Dissolution ANSWER: C 58.A student is feeling feverish with slight body malaise. Based on your knowledge of the stages of disease, which of the following is she in now? A) Incubation period B) Prodromal period C) Acute phase D) Remission ANSWER: B 59.According to Han's Selye's General adaptation model, when the body does not anymore produce hormones , it is already in what stage of stress? A) Alarm reaction B) Resistance C) Recovery D) Exhaustion ANSWER: D 60.A student is going to take the Prelim exams the day after. She is studying overtime to compensate for her low quizzes. In the Han's Selyes's Adaptation model , what stage is she probably in now? A) Alarm reaction B) Resistance C) Recovery D) Exhaustion ANSWER: A 61.During a fire in 8 year old Bobby's house, he was able to carry his bedridden grandmother out of the house. He could not anymore do so after the fire was put out! What component of the autonomic nervous system did Bobby's body respond to, in the incident? A) Sympathetic Nervous system B) Parasympathetic nervous system C) Renin Angiotensin System D) Feedback mechanism ANSWER: A 62.When assessing an infant born at 42 weeks gestation, a nurse would expect which of the following finding? A) Depressed anterior fontanel B) Fine sole creases C) Excessive lanugo D) Parchment-like skin ANSWER: D 63.Betamethasone is administered to a woman at 34 weeks gestation who is in preterm labor. A nurse would expect which of the following outcomes in the newborn if the drug achieves its desired effect? A) Enhanced birth weight B) Absence of hemolytic disorders C) Strengthened immune response D) Decreased severity of respiratory distress syndrome ANSWER: D 64.To screen for the presence of neural tube defects in the fetus, a nurse would expect a pregnant woman to have which of the following tests performed? A) Serum alpha fetoprotein22.To screen for the presence of neural tube defects in the fetus, a nurse would expect a pregnant woman to have which of the following tests performed? A) Serum alpha fetoprotein B) Biophysical profile C) Amniocentesis D) TORCH titers ANSWER: A 65.Because a newborn is diagnosed with Down syndrome, a nurse would anticipate that the infant is at high risk for developing A) Altered thermoregulation B) Generalized infections C) Feeding problems D) Pathologic jaundice ANSWER: C 66.A pregnant woman asks a nurse, Why do I need to have an alpha-feto protein test performed? The nurse response would be based on the understanding that alpha fetoprotein test screens for A) Maternal RH sensitization B) Fetal alcohol syndrome C) Maternal serum albumin levels D) Fetal neural tube defects ANSWER: D 67.An appropriate for gestational age newborn should weigh A) between the 10th and 99th percentile B) at least 2500g C) between 2000 to 4000 g D) in the 50th percentile ANSWER: A 68.Which of the following assessment findings whould the nurse interprete as normal for a term male infant who's 1 hour old? A) Enlargement of the mammary gland B) Slight yellowish hue to the skin C) Blue hand and feet D) Black and blue spots on the buttocks ANSWER: B 69.Which of the following is not a contributing factor to unstable sugars in a newborn? A) Prematurity B) Respiratory distress C) Postdated infant D) Caesarian section delivery ANSWER: D 70.A neonate weighing 700g is born at 30 weeks gestation, as determined by Ballard examination. Based on his weight and gestational age,she flls below the percentile age on the Colorado intrauterine growth chart. The nurse concludes that she's A) Apropriate for gestational age B) Large for gestational age C) Small for gestational age D) Average in birth weight ANSWER: C 71.Which of the following describes how the nurse interpretes a newborn's apgar score of 8 at 5 minutes? A) An infant who's in good condition B) An infant who'e mildly depressed C) An infant who's moderately depressed D) An infant who needs additional oxygen to improve the apgar score ANSWER: A 72.Just after delivery,the nurse measures the neonate's temperature at 34.5 celsius.What should the nurse do? A) Rewarm the neonate gradually B) Rewarm the neonate rapidly C) Observe the neonate at least hourly D) Notify the physician when the neonate's temperature is normal ANSWER: A 73.During the admission assessment of a newborn female,the nurse notes a large lump on the baby's head.Concerned about making the correct assessment, the nurse differentiates between caput succedaneum based on the knowledge that A) Acephalhematoma does not cross the suture lines B) Caput succedaneum occurs primarily with primigravidas C) Cephalhematoma occurs with a birth that requires instrumentation D) Caput succedaneum occurs primarily with prolonged 2nd stage of labor ANSWER: A 74.The nurse is assessing a neonate born 1 day ago to a client who smoked one packed of cigarettes daily during pregnancy.Which findings is most common in mothers whose mothers smoked during pregnancy? A) A post term birth B) Large size for gestational age C) Small size for gestational age D) Appropriate for gestational age ANSWER: C 75.Which finding is considered normal in the neonate during the first few days of the neonate? A) Weight loss of 25 percent B) Birth weight of 2000g to 2500 g C) Weight loss then return to birth weight D) Weight gain of 25 percent ANSWER: C 76.A client who admits she uses heroin delivers a neonate at 32 weeks gestation.Which neonatal assessment is most important for the nurse to perform? A) Auscultation of breath sounds for signs of respiratory problrms B) Careful observation for respiratory effort because of the neonates prematurity C) Evaluation for signs of drugs withdrawal D) Observation for jaundice ANSWER: C 77.After a client delivers a boy,the nurse assesses the neonate to obtain the apgar score.Findings include a heart rate of 120 beats per minute,vigorous cry,some muscle tone in the arms and legs but a less than brisk response,movement and crying in response to light flicking of the sole, and pink skin except for bluish hands and feet.The nurse should assign which apgar score? A) 10 B) 9 C) 8 D) 7 ANSWER: 8 78.A newborn infant receives an Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes of age.The 1 minut apgar score is a good indication of which of the following? A) How well the newborn tolerated labor B) How well the newborn has adapted to extrauterine life C) How well the newborn tolerated the birth D) Gestational age of the newborn ANSWER: A 79.A baby boy is born 8 weeks premature.At birth he has no spontaneous respiration but is successfully resuscitated.Within several hours he develops a respiratory grunting. Cyanosis, tachypnea,nasal flairing, and retractions.He's diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome, intubated and placed on a ventilator.Which nursing action should be included in the baby;s plan of care to prevent retinopathy of prematurity? A) Cover the eyes while receiving oxygen B) Keep his body temperature low C) Monitor partial pressure of oxygen [PaO2] levels D) Humidify the oxygen ANSWER: C 80.A neonate begins to gag and begins to have a dusky color.What should the nurse do? A) Calm the neonate B) Notify the physician C) Provide oxygen via a face mask as ordered D) Aspirate the neonate's nose and mouth with a bulb syringe ANSWER: D 81.The nurse is recording an apgar score for a newborn.The nurse should assess A) Heart rate,respiratory effort,temperature,reflex irritability,and color B) Heart rate,respiratory effort,reflex irritability and color C) Heart rate,respiratory effort,temperature and color D) Heart rate , respiratory effort,temperature,sucking reflex,and color ANSWER: B 82.A neonate weighing 700 g is born at 30 weeks gestation, as determined by Ballard examination. Based on his weight and gestational age,she flls below the percentile age on the Colorado intrauterine growth chart. The nurse concludes that she's A) Apropriate for gestational age B) Large for gestational age C) Small for gestational age D) Average in birth weight ANSWER: C 83.Which of the following describes how the nurse interpretes a newborn's apgar score of 8 at 5 minutes? A) An infant who's in good condition B) An infant who'e mildly depressed C) An infant who's moderately depressed D) An infant who needs additional oxygen to improve the apgar score ANSWER: A 84.Which of the following assessment findings whould the nurse interprete as normal for a term male infant who's 1 hour old? A) Enlargement of the mammary gland B) Slight yellowish hue to the skin C) Blue hand and feet D) Black and blue spots on the buttocks ANSWER: B 85. Which of the following describes how the nurse interpretes a newborn's apgar score of 8 at 5 minutes? A) An infant who's in good condition B) An infant who'e mildly depressed C) An infant who's moderately depressed D) An infant who needs additional oxygen to improve the apgar score ANSWER: A 86.The usual span of years that Alzheimer's may progress in the patient is A) three to five years B) two to twenty years C) fifty to sixty years D) 6 months to one year E) eight to ten years ANSWER: B 87.Alzheimer's is an INSIDIOUS disease. This means A) that it is terminal B) that is can be cured C) that it sneaks up on the person over time D) that it only affects the elderly E) none of the above ANSWER: C 88.The symptom of dementia that involved a more confused state after dark is called: A) ark retreat B) sundowning C) agitation D) dark reaction ANSWER: B 89.Scientists believe that _________________ develop in 48. Scientists believe that _________________ develop in the brain of an Alzheimer's patient, and may be a cause of the disease. A) cholesterols B) tumors C) ruptured blood vessels D) plaques and tangles ANSWER: D 90.A patient with Stage One Alzheimers might exhibit these behaviors: A) forgetting names B) missing appointments C) getting lost while driving D) all of the above E) none of the above ANSWER: D 91.The most well-known risk factor for Alzheimer's disease is A) increasing age B) depression C) family history of the disease ANSWER: A 92.Another risk factor for Alzheimer's disease is A) poor vision B) arthritis C) family history of the disease ANSWER: C 93.What approaches to healthy aging are being studied for preventing AD? A) lowering high blood pressure B) being physically active C) eating a healthy diet D) all of the above ANSWER: D 94.It is important to have an early diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease A) so that patients and families can plan for the future B) so that the symptoms can be better managed C) so that other diseases can be ruled out D) all of the above ANSWER: D 95.With Alzheimer's disease, the time from diagnosis to end of life A) can be as little as 3 years B) may be as long as 10 years or more C) both of the above ANSWER: C 96.People with mild Alzheimer's disease may be helped in day-today living by A) a list of daily plans B) notes about simple safety measures C) written directions describing how to use common household items D) all of the above ANSWER: D 97.A person's genetic makeup can affect the risk of developing A) early onset Alzheimer's disease. B) late onset Alzheimer's disease. C) both early and late onset Alzheimer's disease. ANSWER: C 98.Throughout the life span of the human organism, his body will experience many cellular changes. Which among the following cellular changes is not an adaptation to ensure the survival of the organism ? A) Growth during puberty B) Aging process C) Changes in pregnancy D) Neoplastic conditions ANSWER: D 99.Mr. X, a 45 year old executive of a multinational corporation with chronic hypertensive disease, had an ECG and Chest X ray done as part of his check up. An enlarged cardiac shadow was shown on X- ray . and was diagnosed with cardiomegaly .This condition is what type of adaptation of the cardiac muscles? A) Atrophy B) Hypertrophy C) Neoplasia D) Metaplasia ANSWER: B