1. A client with chronic renal failure is admitted to the urology unit. Which diagnostic test results are consistent with CRF? A) Increased pH with decreased hydrogen ions B) Increased serum levels of potassium, magnesium nd clcium C) Blood urea nitrogen( BUN) 100mg/dl and serum creatinine 6.5g/dl D) Uric acid analysis 3.5 g/dl and pheosulfenothalium excretion 75% ANSWER: C 2. A client with renal dysfunction of acute onset comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue, oliguria and coffee colored urine when obtaining the client's history to check for significant findings, the nurse should ask about A) Chronic , excessive acetaminophen use B) Recent streptococcal infection C) Childhood asthma D) Family history of previous anemi ANSWER: B 3.Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse look for in a client with chronic renal failure A) Hypotension B) Uremia C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Polycythemia ANSWER: B 4.Which of the following should the nurse include in the assessment of the client's cranial nerves and extraocular muscles? A) Red reflex B) Six cardinal fields of gaze C) Visual field D) Macular characteristics ANSWER: B 5.The nurse collects a history from a client suspected of a sensoneural hearing loss.Which of the following findings supports the diagnosis and should be reported? A) the ability to hear high-pitched sounds B) Frequent ear irrigations for dry, hard cerumen C) A history of exposure to excessive noise over a period of time D) Pian management ANSWER: C 6.The nurse should consider which of the following drugs taken by a client with glaucoma? Drugs that A) Increase intraocular pressure B) Decrease intraocular pressure C) Decrease vitreous humor D) Cause anesthesia ANSWER:A 7.All of the following can cause conductive hearing loss except A) Cerumen B) Loud noise C) Otosclerosis D) Middle ear disease ANSWER: B 8.All of the following assessments indicate a client has sustained a retinal detachment except A) Floaters B) A sharp sudden pain in the eye C) Photophobia D) Ring in the visual field ANSWER: B 9.the nurse is collecting a history from a client suspected of having Menier's disease.all of the following findings would support the diagnosis except A) Vertigo B) Tinnitus C) Increased discrimination in understanding the spoken word D) Sensoneural hearing loss ANSWER: C 10.A client asks the nurse to explain what glaucoma is.Which of the following is the appropriate response by the nurse? A) "An opacity of the crystalline lens or its capsule" B) "A curvature of the cornea that becomes unequal' C) "A separation of the neural retina from the pigment retina" D) " An increase in the pressure within the eyeball" ANSWER: D 10.A client who has retinal detachment asks if retinal detachment in the good eye is likely to occur. which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? A) "Chances are very high that you will experience another retinal detachment as you get older" B) "You should prevent trauma to your good eye because trauma can cause retinal detachment" C) "Xlinical manifestations of retinal detachment are pain behind the eye,nausea and dizziness and are to be reported immediately" D) "A retinal detachment can be prevented by having yearly ophthalmic examinations" ANSWER: B 11.The nurse evaluates which of the following assessment findings to be normal in an older adult client? A) Hordoleum B) Exopthalmos C) Presbyopia D) Tinnitus ANSWER: C 12.The nurse is reviewing the normal limits of a hearing assessment for a client who presents with decreased hearing.which of the following would indicate the need for additionl investigation? A) Sound heardequally in both ears with Weber test B) Whispered words are repeated at two feet C) Bone conduction is heard twice s long as air conduction with the Rhinne test D) Pearlygray tympanic membrane with otoscope ANSWER: C 13.A client asks what a hordoleum is.which of the following is the appropriate response by the nurse? A) "It is an inflammation of the cornea" B) " It is a chronic bacterial inflammation of the lid margin" C) " It is an infection of the conjunctiva" D) " It is an infection of the sebaceous gland on an eyelid follicle" ANSWER: D 14.Pink eye is due to an inflammation of the A) conjunctiva B) lacrimal gland C) cornea D) tarsal glands ANSWER: A 15.Strabismus is caused by A) retinal detachment B) Alcohol intoxication C) paralysis of the intrinsic muscle of the eye D) congenital weakness of the extrinsic muscles of the eye ANSWER: D 16.Which of the following treatments would not be used to treat glaucoma? A) laser therapy B) eye drops to increase the rate of aqueous humor drainage C) eye drops to decrease the production of aqueous humor D) eye drops to decrease the production of tears ANSWER: D 17.99% of refractive problems in the eye are related to the A) length of the eyeball. B) strength of the ciliary muscles C) curvature of the lens D) curvature of the cornea ANSWER: A 18. Retinitis pigmentosa is a disease of the _____. A) cones B) rods C) lens D) Ciliary muscles ANSWER: A 19.Some of what we can smell is actually due to A) interaction with taste buds in the pharynx B) pain perception due to the irritation of the nasal muscosa C) stimulation of the olfactory nerve ending by touch such as when particles in inhaled air touch the nerve endings D) touching the nose ANSWER: A 20.Which of the following infections could cause congenital cataracts and deafness? A) measles B) rubella C) chickenpox D) mumps ANSWER: D 21.An infertility assessment begins with a thorough health history. Which of the following factors is least likely to be implicated in causing infertility? A) Menstrual cycle varying from 26-28 days B) Age of both partners C) Length of exposure without contraception D) Frequency and pattern of intercourse ANSWER: A 22.Which of the following disease can affect male infertility? A) Chicken pox B) Measles C) Mumps ANSWER: C 23.An infertility assessment begins with a thorough health history. Which of the following factors is least likely to be implicated in causing infertility? A) Menstrual cycle varying from 26-28 days B) Age of both partners C) Length of exposure without contraception D) Frequency and pattern of intercourse ANSWER: A 24.semen analysis is important in a fertility work up. It includes among others tests; volume, motility morphology and number of his spermatozoA) The normal sperm count per ml is A) 10 million/ml B) 2 million/ml C) less than 20 million/ml D) 1 million/ml ANSWER: C 25.Iin the menstrual cycle that is most conducive to fertilization. Which phase in the menstrual cycle is this? A) Immediately following coitus when the gonadotrophic hormone, FSH is maximal B) Shortly after maturation of the ova which coincides with the estrogenic phase of the endometrium C) Shortly after the rupture of the follicles and the extrusion of the ovum into the oviduct D) At the time when the releasing factor stimulates maximal production of hormones from corpus luteum. ANSWER: C 26.Hormonal control of the menstrual cycle is initiated by which of the following? A) Thyroid gland B) Pituitary gland C) Ovaries D) Corpus luteum ANSWER: B 27.Why is the human chorionic gonadotropin an important hormone in pregnancy? A) Its detection is a significant indicator of pregnancy B) It helps keep the uterus quiescent during pregnancy C) It promotes mammary gland growth during pregnancy D) It regulates maternal protein and fat levels ANSWER: A 28.Following fertilization, what is the length of time it takes for the fertilized ovum to be imbedded in the endometrium ?: A) 6-8 days B) 48 hours C) 24 hours D) 72 hours ANSWER: D 29.The embryo is developed from three cell layers, each of which develops distinctive structures. Which among the following are the three cell layers referred to? A) Amnion, chorion, deciduas B) Allantoise, body stalk, morula C) Mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm D) Morula, blastomere, embryonic disk ANSWER: C 30 What is the chief function of the corpus luteum during pregnancy? A) Progesterone B) Estrogen C) Human chorionic gonadotropin D) None of the above ANSWER: A 31.Which intervention has the highest priority when providing skin care to a bedridden client? A) Changing the bed linens frequently for an incontinent client B) Keeping the skin clean and dry without using harsh soaps C) Gently managing the skin around the pressure areas D) Rubbing moisturizing lotion over the pressure areas ANSWER: B 32. A client sees a dermatologist for a skin problem. Later, the nurse reviews the client's chart and notes that the chief complaint was intertrigo. This term refers to which condition? A) Spontaneously occurring wheals B) A fungus that enters the skin's surface, causing infection C) Inflammation D) Irritation of opposing skin surfaces caused by friction. ANSWER: D 33. The nurse plans to administer dexamethasone cream to a client who has dermatitis over the anterior chest. How should the nurse apply this topical agent? A) With circular motion, to enhance absorption B) With an upward motion, to increase blood supply to the affected area C) In long , even, outward and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth D) In long, even, outward and upward strokes in the direction opposite of hair growth ANSWER: A 34.Which of the following nutritional deficiencies may delay wound healing? A) Lack of Vitamin C B) Lack of Viatamin c C) Lack of Viatamin E D) Lack of calcium ANSWER: B 35.The nurse is providing home care instructions to a client who has recently had a skin graft. It's not important that the client remember to A) Use cosmetic camouflage techniques B) Protect the graft from direct sunlight C) Continued physical therapy D) Apply lubricating lotion to the graft site. ANSWER: B 36. A client with atopic dermatitis is prescribed a potent topical corticosteroid , to be covered with an occlusive dressing. To address a potential client problem associated with treatment, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which " related to " phase? A) Related to potential interaction between the topical corticosteroids and other prescribed drugs B) Related to vasodilatory effects of the topical corticosteroid C) Related to percutaneous absorption of the topical corticosteroid D) Related to topical corticosteroid application to the surface, neck and intertrigonous site. ANSWER: C 37. A client visits the physician's office for treatment of a skin disorder. As a primary treatment, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe A) An IV corticosteroid B) An IV antibiotic C) An oral antibiotic D) A topical agent ANSWER: D 38. During the acute phase of a burn, the nurse should assess which of the following? A) Client's lifestyle B) Alcohol use C) Tobacco use D) circulatory status ANSWER: D 39. The nurse is caring for an elderly bedridden adult. To prevent pressure ulcers, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Turn and reposition, the client at least once every 8 hours B) Vigorously massage lotion into bony prominences C) Post a turning schedule at the client's bedside D) Slide the client, rather than lifting, when turning ANSWER: C 40. a client with psoriasis visits the dermatology cliniC) When inspecting the affected areas, the nurse expects to see which type of secondary lesion? A) Scale B) Crust C) Ulcer D) Scar ANSWER: A 41.The nurse is performing a baseline assessment of a client's skin integrity. Which of the ff is a lung assessment parameter? A) family historyof pressure ulcer B) Presence of existing pressure ulcers C) Potential cures of pressure ulcer development D) Overall risk of developing pressure ulcers ANSWER: D 42.To treat a client with acne vulgaris, the physician is most lkely to prescribe which topical agent for nightly application? A) Minoxidil B) Tretinoin C) Zinc oxide gelatin D) Fluorouracil ANSWER: B 43.A client is diagnosed with herpes simplex. Which statement about herpes simplex infection is true? A) During early pregnancy, herpes simplex infection may cause spontaneous abortion or premature delivery B) Genital herpes simplex lesions are painless, fluid- filled vesicles that are ulcerated and heal in 3-7 days C) Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis usually is bilateral and cause systemic symptoms D) A client with genital herpes lesions can have sexual contact but must use condoms. ANSWER: A 44.A client is diagnosed with primary herpes genitalis. Which instruction should the nurse provide? A) "Apply one applicator of terconazole ultraviolet at bedtime for 7 days" B) "Apply one applicator if ticonazole intrvaginally at bedtime for 7 days C) "Apply acyclovir ointment to the lesions every 3 hours, six times a day for 7 days" D) "Apply sulconazole nitrate twicw a day by massaging it gently into the lesions" ANSWER: C 45. A client is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex. Concerned about spread of the virus to others, the nurse questions the client about recent sexual activity. What is the average incubation period for localized genital herpes simplex infection? A) 6-8 days B) 1-2 days C) 3-7 days D) 10-14 days ANSWER: C 46.The nurse is examining a client for evidence of lice. The nurse should pay particular attention to which part of the scalp? A) Temporal area B) Top of the head C) Behind the ears D) Middle ear ANSWER: C 47.The nurse discover scabies when assessing a client who has just been transferred to the medical surguical unit from the day surgery unit. To prevent scabies infections in other clients , the nurse should A) Wash hands, apply pediculocide in the client's scalp, and remove any observable mites B) Isolate the clients bed linens until the client is no longer infectious C) Notify the nurses in day surgery unit of a potent scabies outbreak D) Place the client in enteric precautions ANSWER: B 48. A client comes to the dermatology . Inspection reveals that the lesions are elevated, sharply defined, less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluiD) When documenting these findings, the nurse should use which term to describe the client's lesion? A) Vesicles B) Bullae C) Cysts D) Pustules ANSWER: A 49. A client diagnosed with gonorrhea, when teaching this client about this disease, the nurse should include which instruction? A) " Avoid sexual intercourse until you've completed treatment, which takes 14-21 days B) "Wash your hands thoroughly to avoid transferring the infection to your eyes C) " If yoy have intercourse before treatment ends, tell sexual partners of your status and have them wash well after intercourse" D) " If you don't get treatment, you may develop enengitiswidespread central nervous system change" 50. A client who has suffered a cerebrovascular accident is too weak to move on his own. To help the client avoid pressure ulcers, the nurse should A) Turn him frequently B) Perform passive range of motion exercises(ROM) C) Reduce the client's fluid intake D) Encourage the client to use a foot board ANSWER: A 51.While in a skilled nursing facility a client contracted scabies, which is diagnosed the day after discharge. The client is living at her daughters home where six other persons are living . During her visit to the clinic, she asks a staff nurse, "What should my family do?" The most accurate response from the nurse is A) "All family members will need to be treated" B) "If someone develops symptoms tell him to see a physician right away." C) "Just be careful not to share linens and towels with family members D) "After you're treated, family members must be at risk for contracting scabies. ANSWER: A 52. Following a small bowel resection , a client develops fever and anemiA) The surface surrounding the surgical wound is warm to the touch and necrotizing fascitis is suspecteD) Another manifestation that would most suggest necrotizing fascitis is A) Erythema B) Leukocytosis C) Pressure like pain D) Swelling ANSWER: C 53.A female client with genital herpes simplex is being treated in the outpatient department. The nurse teaches her about measures that may prevent herpes recurrences and emphasizes the need for prompt treatment of complications arise. Genital herpes simplex increases the risk. A) Cancer of the ovaries B) Cancer of the uterus C) cancer of the cervix D) Cancer of the vagina ANSWER: C 54.The nurse is caring for a wheelchair bound client. Which piece of equipment impedes circulation to the area its meant to protect? A) Polyurethane foam mattress B) Ring or donut C) Get flotation pad D) Water bed ANSWER: B 55. When caring for a client with severe impetigo, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care? A) Placing mitts in the client's hands B) Administering systemic antibiotics C) Applying topical antibiotics as prescribed D) Continuing to administer antibiotics for 21 days as prescribeD) ANSWER: D 56.Which substances increase one's risk for osteoporosis? A) Alcohol abuse B) Hyperlipidemia C) Stress D) Fat diet ANSWER: A 57.When palpating the TMJ, which of the following are you looking for? A) Pustules B) Pain C) Deviation D) Swelling ANSWER: C 58.Boutonniere deformities are associated with osteoarthritis. A) True B) False ANSWER: B 59.Which of the following is not a risk factor, for the elderly, associated with reduction in bone density? A) Decreased cardiac output B) Increased risk of fractures C) Thoracic kyphosis D) Reduction in height ANSWER: A 60.Which of the following is not a normal change of the musculoskeletal system in the elderly? A) reduction in muscle mass B) decreased body fat C) narrowing of joint spaces due to decrease in water content of cartilage D) thinning of intervertebral discs ANSWER: A