1.Which of the following should the nurse include in the assessment of the client's cranial nerves and extraocular muscles? A) Red reflex B) Six cardinal fields of gaze C) Visual field D) Macular characteristics ANSWER: B 2.The nurse collects a history from a client suspected of a sensoneural hearing loss.Which of the following findings supports the diagnosis and should be reported? A) the ability to hear high-pitched sounds B) Frequent ear irrigations for dry, hard cerumen C) A history of exposure to excessive noise over a period of time D) Pian management ANSWER: C 3.The nurse should consider which of the following drugs taken by a client with glaucoma? Drugs that A) Increase intraocular pressure B) Decrease intraocular pressure C) Decrease vitreous humor D) Cause anesthesia ANSWER: A 4.All of the following can cause conductive hearing loss except A) Cerumen B) Loud noise C) Otosclerosis D) Middle ear disease ANSWER: B 5.All of the following assessments indicate a client has sustained a retinal detachment except A) Floaters B) A sharp sudden pain in the eye C) Photophobia D) Ring in the visual field ANSWER: B 6.the nurse is collecting a history from a client suspected of having Menier's disease.all of the following findings would support the diagnosis except A) Vertigo B) Tinnitus C) Increased discrimination in understanding the spoken word D) Sensoneural hearing loss ANSWER: C 7.A client asks the nurse to explain what glaucoma is.Which of the following is the appropriate response by the nurse? A) "An opacity of the crystalline lens or its capsule" B) "A curvature of the cornea that becomes unequal" C) "A separation of the neural retina from the pigment retina" D) " An increase in the pressure within the eyeball" ANSWER: D 8.A client who has retinal detachment asks if retinal detachment in the good eye is likely to occur. which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate? A) "Chances are very high that you will experience another retinal detachment as you get older" B) "You should prevent trauma to your good eye because trauma can cause retinal detachment" C) "Xlinical manifestations of retinal detachment are pain behind the eye,nausea and dizziness and are to be reported immediately" D) "A retinal detachment can be prevented by having yearly ophthalmic examinations" ANSWER: B 9.The nurse evaluates which of the following assessment findings to be normal in an older adult client? A) Hordoleum B) Exopthalmos C) Presbyopia D) Tinnitus ANSWER: C 10.The nurse is reviewing the normal limits of a hearing assessment for a client who presents with decreased hearing.which of the following would indicate the need for additionl investigation? A) Sound heardequally in both ears with Weber test B) Whispered words are repeated at two feet C) Bone conduction is heard twice s long as air conduction with the Rhinne test D) Pearlygray tympanic membrane with otoscope ANSWER: C 11.A client asks what a hordoleum is.which of the following is the appropriate response by the nurse? A) "It is an inflammation of the cornea" B) " It is a chronic bacterial inflammation of the lid margin" C) " It is an infection of the conjunctiva" D) " It is an infection of the sebaceous gland on an eyelid follicle" ANSWER: D 12.Pink eye is due to an inflammation of the A) conjunctiva B) lacrimal gland C) cornea D) tarsal glands ANSWER: A 13.Strabismus is caused by A) retinal detachment B) Alcohol intoxication C) paralysis of the intrinsic muscle of the eye D) congenital weakness of the extrinsic muscles of the eye ANSWER: D 14.Which of the following treatments would not be used to treat glaucoma? A) laser therapy B) eye drops to increase the rate of aqueous humor drainage C) eye drops to decrease the production of aqueous humor D) eye drops to decrease the production of tears ANSWER: D 15.99percent of refractive problems in the eye are related to the A) length of the eyeball. B) strength of the ciliary muscles C) curvature of the lens D) curvature of the cornea ANSWER: A 16. Retinitis pigmentosa is a disease of the _____. A) cones B) rods C) lens D) Ciliary muscles ANSWER: A 17.Some of what we can smell is actually due to A) interaction with taste buds in the pharynx B) pain perception due to the irritation of the nasal muscosa C) stimulation of the olfactory nerve ending by touch such as when particles in inhaled air touch the nerve endings D) touching the nose ANSWER: A 18.Which of the following infections could cause congenital cataracts and deafness? A) measles B) rubella C) chickenpox D) mumps ANSWER: D 19. A client with chronic renal failure is admitted to the urology unit. Which diagnostic test results are consistent with CRF? A) Increased pH with decreased hydrogen ions B) Increased serum levels of potassium, magnesium nd clcium C) Blood urea nitrogen([BUN] 100mg per dl and serum creatinine [6.5g/dl] D) Uric acid analysis [3.5 g/dl] and pheosulfenothalium excretion 75 percent ANSWER: C 20. A client with renal dysfunction of acute onset comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue, oliguria and coffee colored urine when obtaining the client's history to check for significant findings, the nurse should ask about A) Chronic, excessive acetaminophen use B) Recent streptococcal infection C) Childhood asthma D) Family history of previous anemi ANSWER: B 21.Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse look for in a client with chronic renal failure A) Hypotension B) Uremia C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Polycythemia ANSWER: B 22.An infertility assessment begins with a thorough health history. Which of the following factors is least likely to be implicated in causing infertility? A) Menstrual cycle varying from 26 to 28 days B) Age of both partners C) Length of exposure without contraception D) Frequency and pattern of intercourse ANSWER: A 23.Which of the following disease can affect male infertility? A) Chicken pox B) Measles C) Mumps ANSWER: C 24.An infertility assessment begins with a thorough health history. Which of the following factors is least likely to be implicated in causing infertility? A) Menstrual cycle varying from 26 to 28 days B) Age of both partners C) Length of exposure without contraception D) Frequency and pattern of intercourse ANSWER: A 25.semen analysis is important in a fertility work up. It includes among others tests; volume, motility morphology and number of his spermatozoa. The normal sperm count per ml is A) 10 million per ml B) 2 million per ml C) less 20 million per ml D) 1 million per ml ANSWER: C 26.Iin the menstrual cycle that is most conducive to fertilization. Which phase in the menstrual cycle is this? A) Immediately following coitus when the gonadotrophic hormone, FSH is maximal B) Shortly after maturation of the ova which coincides with the estrogenic phase of the endometrium C) Shortly after the rupture of the follicles and the extrusion of the ovum into the oviduct D) At the time when the releasing factor stimulates maximal production of hormones from corpus luteum. ANSWER: C 27.Hormonal control of the menstrual cycle is initiated by which of the following? A) Thyroid gland B) Pituitary gland C) Ovaries D) Corpus luteum ANSWER: B 28.Why is the human chorionic gonadotropin an important hormone in pregnancy? A) Its detection is a significant indicator of pregnancy B) It helps keep the uterus quiescent during pregnancy C) It promotes mammary gland growth during pregnancy D) It regulates maternal protein and fat levels ANSWER: A 29.Following fertilization, what is the length of time it takes for the fertilized ovum to be imbedded in the endometrium ?: A) 6 to 8 days B) 48 hours C) 24 hours D) 72 hours ANSWER: D 30.The embryo is developed from three cell layers, each of which develops distinctive structures. Which among the following are the three cell layers referred to? A) Amnion, chorion, deciduas B) Allantoise, body stalk, morula C) Mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm D) Morula, blastomere, embryonic disk ANSWER: C 31.What is the chief function of the corpus luteum during pregnancy? A) Progesterone B) Estrogen C) Human chorionic gonadotropin D) None of the above ANSWER: A 32. An infertility assessment begins with a thorough health history. Which of the following factors is least likely to be implicated in causing infertility? A) Menstrual cycle varying from 26-28 days B) Age of both partners C) Length of exposure without contraception D) Frequency and pattern of intercourse ANSWER: C 33.Hormonal control of the menstrual cycle is initiated by which of the following? A) Thyroid gland B) Pituitary gland C) Ovaries D) Corpus luteum ANSWER: B 34.At which phase of menstrual cycle is the most conducive to fertilization? A) Immediately following coitus when the gonadotrophic hormone,FSH is maximal B) Shortly after maturation of the ova which coincides with the estrogenic phase of the endomtrium C) Shortly after the rupture of the follicles and the extrusion of the ovum Into the oviduct D) At the time when the releasing factor stimulates maximal production of hormones from corpus luteum. ANSWER: C 35 What is the chief function of the corpus luteum during pregnancy? A) progesterone B) Estrogen C) Human chorionic gonadotropin D) None of the above ANSWER: A 36.She also asks you about implantation. Which among the following is true ofimplantation? A) Occurs about 5 days after fertilization B) Occurs during the morula stage C) Accomplished by the action of the trophoblast cells D) Eight percent of the zygote fails to implant ANSWER: C 37.In explaining the development of her baby, you decided to start by saying that the embryo is developed from three cell layers, each of which develops distinctive structures. Which among the following are the three cell layers referred to? A) Amnion, chorion, deciduas B) Allantoise, body stalk, morula C) Mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm D) Morula, blastomere, embryonic disk ANSWER: C 38.Which of the following functions would the nurse expect to be unrelated to the placenta? A) Production of estrogen and progesterone B) Detoxification of some druga and chemicals C) Exchange site for food, gases and waste D) Production of maternal antibiotics ANSWER: B 39.A 47 year old female patient was diagnosed with cervical cancer. A review of the patient's history was done for risk factors for developing this disease. Which of the following is a risk factor for cervical cancer? A) Onset of occasional sexual activity at age 16 B) Spontaneous abortion at age 17 C) Pregnancy complicated with pregnancy induced hypertension at age 30 D) Human papilloma virus infection at age 29 ANSWER: D 40.A lump in the breast of a patient was discovered on her self breast examination. She asks the physician ,what diagnostic procedure can confirm the diagnosis of breast cancer. What would be the expected reply? A) Ultrasound of the breast B) Mammography C) Fine needle biopsy D) Chest Xray ANSWER: C 41.Which of the following is a risk factor for prostatic cancer? A) A history of infertility? B) Being over 40 C) Poverty D) Celibacy 42.Early detection of an ectopic pregnancy is paramount in preventing life threatening rupture. Which symptoms should alert the woman to the probability of an ectopic pregnancy? A) Abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding and a positive pregnancy test B) Hyperemesis and weight loss C) Ammenorrhea and a negative pregnancy test ANSWER: A 43.Human chorionic gonadotropin has a very high level in which of the following conditions? A) Gestational trophoblastic disease B) Abruptio placenta C) Placenta previa D) Preterm Labor ANSWER: A 44.Three statements concerning the Hydatidiform mole are true. Which is false? A) There is an increase blood pressure on weight gain B) There is pernicious vomiting due to hormonal alteration. C) There is rapid increase in the size of the uterus. D) The level of human chorionic gonadotrophin decrease ANSWER: D 45.A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal cliniC) Although she's 14 weeks pregnant, the size of her uterus approximates that in an 18-20 weeks pregnancy. The physician diagnosis gestational trophoblastic disease and orders sonography. The nurse expects ultrasonography to reveal A) An empty gestational sac B) Grapelike clusters C) Severely malformed fetus D) An extrauterine pregnancy ANSWER: B 46.A client who's 3 months pregnant with her first child reports that she has had increasing morning sickness for the past month. Nursing assessment reveals a fundal height of 20cm and no audible fetal heart tones. He nurse should suspect which complication of pregnancy? A) Fetal demise B) Ectopic pregnancy C) Hyperemesis gravidarum D) Gestational trophoblastic disease ANSWER: D 47.A woman consulted in the clinic in her third month of pregnancy. She complained of intermittent brownish-red- discharge and excessive nausea and vomiting. Abdominal palpation reveals the uterus to be at the level of the umbilicus. Fetal heart tones are absent. Which of the following diagnosis would you most likely expect? A) Ectopic pregnancy B) Hyperemesis gravidarum C) Hydatidiform mole D) Threatened abortion ANSWER: C 48.Which of the following have the distinctive symptoms of severe abruptio placenta ? A) Lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding B) Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding and premature rupture of the membranes C) Concealed painless uterine bleeding and oliguria D) Abnormal engagement of the presenting part and prolonged labor ANSWER: A 49.At 37 weeks, Bea calls the office to say she awoke in a pool of blood and is dizzy and nauseateD) But she denies any abdominal pain or cramping. On the basis of this assessment, the nurse suggests she go to the hospital immediately and meet the doctor. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis? A) Placenta previa B) Abruptio placenta C) Preeclampsia D) Uterine rupture ANSWER: A 50.After developing severe hydramnios, a primigravid client exhibits dyspnea along with edema of legs .Which procedure should the nurse expect her to undergo and why? A) Artificial rupture of the membranes to uterine pressure B) Amniocenesis performed to relieve discomfort C) IV oxytocin administered to induce labor D) Cesarian delivery to prevent further fetal change ANSWER: B 51.What signs would a pregnant woman first notice in developing toxemia? A) High blood pressure, albuminuria B) Sudden weight gain, edema of the hands C) Headches, spots before the eyes D) Epigastric pain, anuria ANSWER: A 52.Diana is in the last trimester of pregnancy. The nurse should instruct her to notify her primary health care provider immediately if she notices which of the following signs? A) Blurred vision B) Hemorrhoids C) Increased vaginal mucous D) Dyspnea on exertion ANSWER: A 53.Diana is admitted at 36 weeks directly from clinic, with a blood pressure of 146/98. Diana complains her face and hands feel "puffy" and lately, she has been having "awful headaches and problems seeing." Admission note states: Admit stat for preeclampsia. Questions 38-41 refer to this situation. For which of the following reasons must Diana be carefully assessed for fluid intake and urine output? A) Oliguria is a grave sign B) Daily intake should never exceed 2000 ml C) Sudden diuresis can precipitate convulsion D) If urine output is less than 100 ml/4h, repeat dose of magnesium sulfate is needed ANSWER: A 54.Diana is now considered a severe preeclamptiC) Close observation and continuous nursing assessment are necessary to facilitate prompt identification and management of which of the following? A) Abruptio placenta B) Placenta previa C) Hydramnios D) Hyperemesis gravidarum ANSWER: A 55. Sally is in labor and tells the nurse she had trouble controlling her blood glucose level recently. She says she didn't take her insulin when the contraction began because she felt nauseated; about an hour later, when she felt better , she ate some soup and crackers but didn't take insulin. Now she reports increased nausea and flushed feeling. The nurse notes a fruity odor to her breath. What do these findings suggest? A) Diabetic ketoacidosis B) Hypoglcemia C) Infection D) Transition to the active phase of labor 56.Which of the following can be detected or assessed by Ultrasound?: A) Hydatidiform mole B) Lung maturity C) Fetal heart rate D) Fetal death ANSWER: D 57.Morning sickness is attributed to increased levels of which of the following? A) Human chorionic gonadotropin B) Leutenizing hormone C) Progesterone D) Estrogen ANSWER: A 58.A patient with active genital herpes is admitted to the labor and delivery area during the first stage of labor. Which type of birth should the nurse anticipate for this client? A) Mid forceps B) Low forceps C) Induction D) Cesarian ANSWER: D 59.The nurse is caring for a client with mild active bleeding from placenta previA) Which assessment factor indicates an emergency cesarian section may be necessary? A) Increased maternal blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg B) Decreased amount of vaginal bleeding C) Fetal heart rate of 80 beats /min D) Maternal heart rate of 65 beats/min ANSWER: C 60.After admission to the labor room, a pregnant mother undergoes routine tests, including a complete blood count, urinalysis, venereal disease lab test and gonorrhea culture. The gonorrhea culture is positive. Although the client lacks symptoms and signs of this disease. What is the significance of this finding? A) Maternal gonorrhea may cause a neural defect B) Maternal gonorrhea may cause an eye infection in the neonate C) maternal gonorrhea may cause acute liver changes in the fetus D) Maternal gonorrhea may cause anemia in the neonate 61.Pathophysiology of Leiomyoma A) PID B) Endometriosis C) Eclampsia ANSWER: B 62.The main function of the scrotum is to A) Provide storage for newly developed sperm B) Maintain a cool temperature for the testes C) Deposit sperm in the female reproductive tract ANSWER: B 63.The main function of the ovaries is to A) Secrete hormones that affect the buildup and shedding of the endometrium during the menstrual cycle B) Accommodate a growing fetus during pregnancy C) Produce mature ova 64.The corpus luteum forms and degenerates in which stage of the female reproductive cycle? A) Luteal B) Follicular C) Proliferative ANSWER: A 65.The four hormones involved in the menstrual cycle are: A) Luteinizing hormone, progesterone, estrogen and testosterone B) Estrogen, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone and androgens C) Estrogen, progesterone , luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone ANSWER: C 66.Each of the three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm) forms specific tissues and organs in developing A) Zygote B) Ovum C) Embryo ANSWER: C 67.The structure that guards the fetus is the A) Decidua B) Amniotic sac C) Corpus luteum 68.Which intervention has the highest priority when providing skin care to a bedridden client? A) Changing the bed linens frequently for an incontinent client B) Keeping the skin clean and dry without using harsh soaps C) Gently managing the skin around the pressure areas D) Rubbing moisturizing lotion over the pressure areas ANSWER: B 69.A client sees a dermatologist for a skin problem. Later, the nurse reviews the client's chart and notes that the chief complaint was intertrigo. This term refers to which condition? A) Spontaneously occurring wheals B) A fungus that enters the skin's surface, causing infection C) Inflammation D) Irritation of opposing skin surfaces caused by friction. ANSWER: D 70.The nurse plans to administer dexamethasone cream to a client who has dermatitis over the anterior chest. How should the nurse apply this topical agent? A) With circular motion, to enhance absorption B) With an upward motion, to increase blood supply to the affected area C) In long , even, outward and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth D) In long, even, outward and upward strokes in the direction opposite of hair growth ANSWER: A 71.Which of the following nutritional deficiencies may delay wound healing? A) Lack of Vitamin C B) Lack of Viatamin c C) Lack of Viatamin E D) Lack of calcium ANSWER: B 72.The nurse is providing home care instructions to a client who has recently had a skin graft. It's not important that the client remember to A) Use cosmetic camouflage techniques B) Protect the graft from direct sunlight C) Continued physical therapy D) Apply lubricating lotion to the graft site. ANSWER: B 73.A client with atopic dermatitis is prescribed a potent topical corticosteroid , to be covered with an occlusive dressing. To address a potential client problem associated with treatment, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which " related to " phase? A) Related to potential interaction between the topical corticosteroids and other prescribed drugs B) Related to vasodilatory effects of the topical corticosteroid C) Related to percutaneous absorption of the topical corticosteroid D) Related to topical corticosteroid application to the surface, neck and intertrigonous site. ANSWER: C 74.A client visits the physician's office for treatment of a skin disorder. As a primary treatment, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe A) An IV corticosteroid B) An IV antibiotic C) An oral antibiotic D) A topical agent ANSWER: D 75.During the acute phase of a burn, the nurse should assess which of the following? A) Client's lifestyle B) Alcohol use C) Tobacco use D) circulatory status ANSWER: D 76.The nurse is caring for an elderly bedridden adult. To prevent pressure ulcers, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A) Turn and reposition, the client at least once every 8 hours B) Vigorously massage lotion into bony prominences C) Post a turning schedule at the client's bedside D) Slide the client, rather than lifting, when turning ANSWER: C 77. a client with psoriasis visits the dermatology cliniC) When inspecting the affected areas, the nurse expects to see which type of secondary lesion? A) Scale B) Crust C) Ulcer D) Scar ANSWER: A 78.The nurse is performing a baseline assessment of a client's skin integrity. Which of the ff is a lung assessment parameter? A) family historyof pressure ulcer B) Presence of existing pressure ulcers C) Potential cures of pressure ulcer development D) Overall risk of developing pressure ulcers ANSWER: D 79.To treat a client with acne vulgaris, the physician is most lkely to prescribe which topical agent for nightly application? A) Minoxidil B) Tretinoin C) Zinc oxide gelatin D) Fluorouracil ANSWER: B 80.A client is diagnosed with herpes simplex. Which statement about herpes simplex infection is true? A) During early pregnancy, herpes simplex infection may cause spontaneous abortion or premature delivery B) Genital herpes simplex lesions are painless, fluid- filled vesicles that are ulcerated and heal in 3-7 days C) Herpetic keratoconjunctivitis usually is bilateral and cause systemic symptoms D) A client with genital herpes lesions can have sexual contact but must use condoms. ANSWER: A 81.A client is diagnosed with primary herpes genitalis. Which instruction should the nurse provide? A) "Apply one applicator of terconazole ultraviolet at bedtime for 7 days" B) "Apply one applicator if ticonazole intrvaginally at bedtime for 7 days C) "Apply acyclovir ointment to the lesions every 3 hours, six times a day for 7 days" D) "Apply sulconazole nitrate twicw a day by massaging it gently into the lesions" ANSWER: C 82.A client is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex. Concerned about spread of the virus to others, the nurse questions the client about recent sexual activity. What is the average incubation period for localized genital herpes simplex infection? A) 6-8 days B) 1-2 days C) 3-7 days D) 10-14 days ANSWER: C 83.The nurse is examining a client for evidence of lice. The nurse should pay particular attention to which part of the scalp? A) Temporal area B) Top of the head C) Behind the ears D) Middle ear ANSWER: C 84.The nurse discover scabies when assessing a client who has just been transferred to the medical surguical unit from the day surgery unit. To prevent scabies infections in other clients , the nurse should A) Wash hands, apply pediculocide in the client's scalp, and remove any observable mites B) Isolate the clients bed linens until the client is no longer infectious C) Notify the nurses in day surgery unit of a potent scabies outbreak D) Place the client in enteric precautions ANSWER: B 85.A client comes to the dermatology . Inspection reveals that the lesions are elevated, sharply defined, less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluiD) When documenting these findings, the nurse should use which term to describe the client's lesion? A) Vesicles B) Bullae C) Cysts D) Pustules ANSWER: A 86.A client diagnosed with gonorrhea, when teaching this client about this disease, the nurse should include which instruction? A) "Avoid sexual intercourse until you've completed treatment, which takes 14-21 days B) "Wash your hands thoroughly to avoid transferring the infection to your eyes C) "If yoy have intercourse before treatment ends, tell sexual partners of your status and have them wash well after intercourse" D) " If you don't get treatment, you may develop enengitiswidespread central nervous system change" 87.A client who has suffered a cerebrovascular accident is too weak to move on his own. To help the client avoid pressure ulcers, the nurse should A) Turn him frequently B) Perform passive range of motion exercises(ROM) C) Reduce the client's fluid intake D) Encourage the client to use a foot board ANSWER: A 88.While in a skilled nursing facility a client contracted scabies, which is diagnosed the day after discharge. The client is living at her daughters home where six other persons are living . During her visit to the clinic, she asks a staff nurse, "What should my family do?" The most accurate response from the nurse is A) "All family members will need to be treated" B) "If someone develops symptoms tell him to see a physician right away." C) "Just be careful not to share linens and towels with family members D) "After you're treated, family members must be at risk for contracting scabies. ANSWER: A 89.Following a small bowel resection , a client develops fever and anemiA) The surface surrounding the surgical wound is warm to the touch and necrotizing fascitis is suspecteD) Another manifestation that would most suggest necrotizing fascitis is A) Erythema B) Leukocytosis C) Pressure like pain D) Swelling ANSWER: C 90.A female client with genital herpes simplex is being treated in the outpatient department. The nurse teaches her about measures that may prevent herpes recurrences and emphasizes the need for prompt treatment of complications arise. Genital herpes simplex increases the risk. A) Cancer of the ovaries B) Cancer of the uterus C) cancer of the cervix D) Cancer of the vagina ANSWER: C 91.The nurse is caring for a wheelchair bound client. Which piece of equipment impedes circulation to the area its meant to protect? A) Polyurethane foam mattress B) Ring or donut C) Get flotation pad D) Water bed ANSWER: B 92.When caring for a client with severe impetigo, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care? A) Placing mitts in the client's hands B) Administering systemic antibiotics C) Applying topical antibiotics as prescribed D) Continuing to administer antibiotics for 21 days as prescribed ANSWER: D